On Mon, Jul 14, 2025 at 10:42 PM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:
*>> No quantum interpretation that is consistent with experiments can be > all three,* *> What is the origin or justification for this claim? TY, AG * *The justification, as I have said before, is that experimenters have found that Bell's Inequality is violated and, as I have also said before, if you want to get an intuitive understanding of what this is all about then read my long post about that which I have sent at least three times.* *John K Clark See what's on my new list at Extropolis <https://groups.google.com/g/extropolis>* ob1 -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To view this discussion visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/everything-list/CAJPayv01BzZf6DB3tV1kb%3DCKLJ-CpmeC50B%3DtyJrWs_W2Op_ww%40mail.gmail.com.
