On Tue, 13 Nov 2007, comex wrote: > This rule does not 'allow', as in make reasonably possible restriction of a > person's rights or privileges. Nevertheless it 'allows' it by legislating > it. Does Rule 101, which claims to "take precedence over any rule which > would allow restrictions of a person's rights of privileges" take > precedence over it?
Yes of course, Rule R101 would take precedence, provided the rule in question were of power 3 or less. This is explicit in R1482 and R1030. By the way (true story), I had the opportunity to travel to Vladivostok in 1999 and specifically picked up an old telephone directory for this purpose. Be careful what you propose. :) -Goethe
