>
> 1. How does the productivity of labor, increased material output in the
> same or reduced time, increase the rate of surplus value given the fact
> that no additional new value is created, nor is the rate of new value
> created has not change? 2 hours is 2 hours whether 50 mousetraps or 100
> mousetraps are the result.  How does the change in output change the rate
> of surplus value?
>

An increase in the productivity of labour reduces the amount of time that
the worker must work to produce the value of his/her necessities. So, for
example, if productivity is increased by 10%, the amount of time for
replacing the wage is reduced by 10% and the surplus labour time and
surplus value increase correspondingly. This ONLY obtains for as long as
the productivity increase is restricted to one or a few pioneering firms.
Once the productivity increase becomes generalized this advantage
disappears.


> 2.  What is the contradiction between the labor-time theory of value and
> the "intensity of labor" in bourgeois political economy?  How is Marx's
> intensity of labor as a determinant of value different than that of
> political economists.  How does Marx measure "intensity" to determine the
> "norm" and thus provide a base for variation in the amounts of value?
>

This question is poorly constructed because it *assumes* the result that it
is asking the interlocutor to disprove. Actually the difference between
classical political economy and Marx's critique of it in *Capital *is
Marx's category of labour power. Classical political economy assumes that
the capitalist buys "labour" from the worker. Marx's "labour power" or the
capacity to labour. The value of that labour power is determined
differently than the value of labour in the exchange value of a commodity.
If you didn't catch this when you read Capital, then you missed the
argument. I won't blame you for not understanding *Capital. *but I would
suggest that you don't parade your misunderstanding as a SUPERIOR
understanding.


> 3. How is it possible for the law of value to apply to the exchange of
> commodities only in the "prehistory" of industrial capitalism, before labor
> itself is forced to exist as a commodity whose value to the workers exists
> only in its exchange-ability with the value of the means of subsistence
> necessary for its reproduction?


I am not going to defend Marx's presentation of his argument here because
the volume was edited by Engels from Marx's incomplete drafts. I *suppose* what
Marx is talking about assumes his own familiarity with arguments presented
elsewhere including (at the time) in unpublished manuscripts.

I guess what Marx is getting at here is that it is only with "a definite
degree of capitalist development" that changes in productivity occur so
rapidly that it becomes impossible to directly estimate exchange value by
labour time because these times are no longer customary, stable, or well
established. So industrialists and merchants have to rely on derivative
"indexes" when they are setting their prices.

But if you read the passage you quoted, Marx was NOT saying that the law of
value no longer applies as you put it. Curiously, you omit precisely the
part where Marx is saying *the opposite* of what you claim he is saying:

Whatever may be the ways in which the prices of different
> commodities are first established or fixed in relation to one another, the
> law of value governs their movement.


Cheers,

Tom Walker (Sandwichman)


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