I play and typeset a lot of latin american music which has a lot of syncopation which makes this particlar scene appear quite often. Maybe I got used to something non-standard but it still seems more logical to me to omit the tied accidental and treat the measure as if there was no line break.
I can confirm that also from pov of jazz music - I've looked through some of the "official" jazz publications and haven't seen any accidentals on tied-and-broken notes. Perhaps Gould's rule in this case is mainly meant for classical notation practice?
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