On 12 Jun 13:27, Albert Cervera i Areny wrote:
> >> > > From a user perspective the search imitates 'from 1 to 42', which 
> >> > > includes
> >> > > 42 in the selection.
> >> >
> >> > What is the original of 'from 1 to 42'?
> >>
> >> Sorry, I don't understand the question.
> >
> > You say that the search imitates something which has a specific
> > behavior. But where does it come from?
> 
> I think it comes from these two facts:
> - When speaking, we always say "values between 1 and 42" and in this
> case everybody understands that both numbers are included.

For me, it is not obvious because the language is not precise.

> - It's easier to search. For example if you search all account moves
> of march, you think of the first to 31th of march. Using "<" and ">"
> means the user has to think of 28th february and 1st of april.

This is a little bit a counter example, because in the current case you
will just say: March 1th .. April 1th while with included end you have
to know how much days are in the month: March 1th .. March 31th.

-- 
Cédric Krier - B2CK SPRL
Email/Jabber: [email protected]
Tel: +32 472 54 46 59
Website: http://www.b2ck.com/

Attachment: pgprH2skGkluo.pgp
Description: PGP signature

Reply via email to