On 12 Jun 13:27, Albert Cervera i Areny wrote: > >> > > From a user perspective the search imitates 'from 1 to 42', which > >> > > includes > >> > > 42 in the selection. > >> > > >> > What is the original of 'from 1 to 42'? > >> > >> Sorry, I don't understand the question. > > > > You say that the search imitates something which has a specific > > behavior. But where does it come from? > > I think it comes from these two facts: > - When speaking, we always say "values between 1 and 42" and in this > case everybody understands that both numbers are included.
For me, it is not obvious because the language is not precise. > - It's easier to search. For example if you search all account moves > of march, you think of the first to 31th of march. Using "<" and ">" > means the user has to think of 28th february and 1st of april. This is a little bit a counter example, because in the current case you will just say: March 1th .. April 1th while with included end you have to know how much days are in the month: March 1th .. March 31th. -- Cédric Krier - B2CK SPRL Email/Jabber: [email protected] Tel: +32 472 54 46 59 Website: http://www.b2ck.com/
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