Dear Rizwana and Simon,

see also this reply from David Ackerley to a question of mine on r-squared
in pGLS

http://www.mail-archive.com/r-sig-phylo%40r-project.org/msg03953.html

regards,

James

>
>
> Date: Fri, 29 Jan 2016 10:06:05 +1000
> From: Simon Blomberg <s.blombe...@uq.edu.au>
> To: r-sig-phylo@r-project.org
> Subject: Re: [R-sig-phylo] interpreting pGLS
> Message-ID: <56aaaced.3020...@uq.edu.au>
> Content-Type: text/plain; charset=windows-1252; format=flowed
>
> Hi Rizwana,
>
> There is no reason why we would expect the phylogenetic signal in the
> raw variables to be the same as the phylogenetic signal from the
> regression analysis (K or lambda), as in the regression, you are really
> looking at the phylogenetic signal of the _residuals_, which may be
> quite different. Also, the r-squareds from pgls in caper are not
> calculated in the same way as r-squareds from an ordinary least squares
> analysis. In fact, there is no "correct" way to calculate r-squared for
> any model other than the OLS model, as OLS r-squared is based on the
> residual variance. For other types of models, including GLS, "residual
> variance" is not a well-defined concept. Personally, I don't use
> r-squared for any model other than OLS models. There are far better ways
> to conduct model criticism.
>
> Cheers,
>
> Simon.
>
> On 28/01/16 15:57, Rizwana Rumman wrote:
> > Dear R-sid-phylo list,
> >
> > I am having some problems to interpret the results of a co-evolution
> analysis and I hope you can help me to get my head around things.
> >
> > I have two variables that each show significant non-random phylogenetic
> signal (K and lambda) and appear to be significantly correlated in a
> non-phylogenetic regression; but when I am performing a pGLS in caper, the
> lambda is estimated to be zero and the two variables shows the exact same
> R-square and level of significance as estimated from the non-phylogenetic
> regression analysis. I also have two other sets of variables  that show
> lambdas >0 (very similar values from caper and ape) in the pGLS analysis,
> but for these variables, the R-square values are smaller from pGLS than
> those estimated from non-phylogenetic regression. I guess my question is if
> I can safely interpret that, in the first case, phylogenetic history does
> not significantly affect my trait correlations (indicated by lambda=0 and
> very similar simple linear regression and pGLS results)  and in the latter
> case (i.e. smaller R-squares after correcting for phylogeny),
> non-phylogenetic regressions slightly overes!
>  ti!
> >   mates the correlations of the traits.
> >
> > Many thanks for the help!
> >
> > Cheers,
> > Rizwana
> >
> >
> >       [[alternative HTML version deleted]]
> >
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>
> --
> Simon Blomberg, BSc (Hons), PhD, MAppStat, AStat.
> Senior Lecturer and Consultant Statistician
> School of Biological Sciences
> The University of Queensland
> St. Lucia Queensland 4072
> Australia
> T: +61 7 3365 2506
> email: S.Blomberg1_at_uq.edu.au
> http://www.evolutionarystatistics.org
>
> Policies:
> 1.  I will NOT analyse your data for you.
> 2.  Your deadline is your problem.
>
> Basically, I'm not interested in doing research
> and I never have been. I'm interested in
> understanding, which is quite a different thing.
> - David Blackwell
>
>
>
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