Dear R-sid-phylo list,

I am having some problems to interpret the results of a co-evolution analysis 
and I hope you can help me to get my head around things.

I have two variables that each show significant non-random phylogenetic signal 
(K and lambda) and appear to be significantly correlated in a non-phylogenetic 
regression; but when I am performing a pGLS in caper, the lambda is estimated 
to be zero and the two variables shows the exact same R-square and level of 
significance as estimated from the non-phylogenetic regression analysis. I also 
have two other sets of variables  that show lambdas >0 (very similar values 
from caper and ape) in the pGLS analysis, but for these variables, the R-square 
values are smaller from pGLS than those estimated from non-phylogenetic 
regression. I guess my question is if I can safely interpret that, in the first 
case, phylogenetic history does not significantly affect my trait correlations 
(indicated by lambda=0 and very similar simple linear regression and pGLS 
results)  and in the latter case (i.e. smaller R-squares after correcting for 
phylogeny), non-phylogenetic regressions slightly overesti!
 mates the correlations of the traits.

Many thanks for the help!

Cheers,
Rizwana


        [[alternative HTML version deleted]]

_______________________________________________
R-sig-phylo mailing list - R-sig-phylo@r-project.org
https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-phylo
Searchable archive at http://www.mail-archive.com/r-sig-phylo@r-project.org/

Reply via email to