Dear R-sid-phylo list, I am having some problems to interpret the results of a co-evolution analysis and I hope you can help me to get my head around things.
I have two variables that each show significant non-random phylogenetic signal (K and lambda) and appear to be significantly correlated in a non-phylogenetic regression; but when I am performing a pGLS in caper, the lambda is estimated to be zero and the two variables shows the exact same R-square and level of significance as estimated from the non-phylogenetic regression analysis. I also have two other sets of variables that show lambdas >0 (very similar values from caper and ape) in the pGLS analysis, but for these variables, the R-square values are smaller from pGLS than those estimated from non-phylogenetic regression. I guess my question is if I can safely interpret that, in the first case, phylogenetic history does not significantly affect my trait correlations (indicated by lambda=0 and very similar simple linear regression and pGLS results) and in the latter case (i.e. smaller R-squares after correcting for phylogeny), non-phylogenetic regressions slightly overesti! mates the correlations of the traits. Many thanks for the help! Cheers, Rizwana [[alternative HTML version deleted]] _______________________________________________ R-sig-phylo mailing list - R-sig-phylo@r-project.org https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-sig-phylo Searchable archive at http://www.mail-archive.com/r-sig-phylo@r-project.org/