On 2016-11-05, Steve D'Aprano <steve+pyt...@pearwood.info> wrote: > On Sun, 6 Nov 2016 02:55 am, Jon Ribbens wrote: >> I'm afraid I can only suggest that you try re-reading the subthread >> again until you manage to understand it. It wasn't really that >> complicated but you seem to have confused yourself greatly. > > Are you serious?
Yes. You haven't understood the thread, and I don't know how to explain it any simpler, so I'm afraid all I can suggest is that you re-read what was already written. > I can only repeat yet again: you have not understood Ben. You're still wrong no matter how many times you repeat yourself. I've understood him, you have understood neither him nor me. You've got hung up on the pip3 issue which is blinding you to the other implications of Ben's answer. Threads can and usually do diverge to a greater or lesser degree. Just because a post is a follow-up in a thread doesn't mean that post is entirely and solely about the original topic of that thread. Try dropping your preconceptions and reading the sub-thread again from the post before my first post without making false assumptions and while bearing in mind that I am asking a question that is tangential to the original question rather than directly descended from it. > The implication is that the answer to your question is Yes, you can run > Python in the context of a virtualenv by just invoking that virtualenv's > local Python without running 'activate' first. So you were wrong earlier when you said you couldn't do that? You're spending an awful lot of effort being pointlessly argumentative about who has or hasn't understood what while avoiding addressing the actual perfectly simple question - if running Python directly from a venv path is equivalent to running 'activate' then Python, how does it know that it's in a venv? (Yes, I know it can sort-of work out where it's run from using argv[0] but how does it know it's *in a venv*?) -- https://mail.python.org/mailman/listinfo/python-list
