Heya On Fri, Jun 22, 2012 at 2:00 PM, Hugo Osvaldo Barrera < h...@osvaldobarrera.com.ar> wrote:
> On 2012-06-21 17:22, Simon Perreault wrote: > > On 2012-06-21 15:50, Hugo Osvaldo Barrera wrote: > >> I have read a great deal regarding IPv6 and IIRC, if I subnet my > >> network block, my ISP would have to know it has to route traffic to that > >> subnet through the WAN IP address of my router. > > > > Yes. If they don't allow that, then they don't know what they are doing. > > You're not supposed to assign a /48 to a single link. A single link gets > > a /64. > > But how would they know though which single IP to route the rest of the > subnets? > > I mean, if I assign: > 2800:40:402:ffff::1/64 to my router's WAN interface > (2800:40:402:ffff::ffff is it's default gateway) > 2800:40:402::1/64 to it's LAN interface > 2800:40:402::2/64 to one of my clients > > Doesn't my ISP need to know that traffic to 2800:40:402::1 should be > routed through 2800:40:402:ffff::1? > > What you have outlined there is that the ISP has configured their upstream device such that it is directly connected to your entire IPv6 allocation. If that is how they want to do things, then your best hope is to define the /64 between their space and yours as being 2800:40:402:ffff::/64, and asking them to configure their upstream device to deliver 2800:40:402::/48 to 2800:40:402:ffff::1 Alternatively, ask them for a linking allocation to remove the block allocated to you from being directly attached to one of their devices. Shane
