In my limited experience with ipv6, this has been the case. The provider has you on a /64 of their own (not part of your /48), so your WAN interface would have one of their IP's on it, and they should tell you exactly what it should be. Just as it's done in IPv4. Your own personal /48 is then routed through that IP. You can assign more IP's from your /48 to your WAN interface, of course, by dedicating a /64 to it. But you will always need to have at least the one ISP IP on it.
RK On Thu, Jun 21, 2012 at 4:22 PM, Simon Perreault <simon.perrea...@viagenie.ca> wrote: > On 2012-06-21 15:50, Hugo Osvaldo Barrera wrote: >> >> I have read a great deal regarding IPv6 and IIRC, if I subnet my >> >> network block, my ISP would have to know it has to route traffic to that >> subnet through the WAN IP address of my router. > > > Yes. If they don't allow that, then they don't know what they are doing. > You're not supposed to assign a /48 to a single link. A single link gets a > /64. > > >> The alternative would be to proxy ndp and have OpenBSD forward packets, >> yet I don't see a way to proxy an entire subnet using ndp. > > > Right, because you shouldn't do that, especially in IPv6 with the 64 bits of > addressing for a single subnet. > > >> Am I missing something perhaps? > > > Call the support and ask them for the missing information? > > You're definitely not supposed to bridge. > > Simon
