On 2012-06-21 22:00, Hugo Osvaldo Barrera wrote:
On 2012-06-21 17:22, Simon Perreault wrote:
On 2012-06-21 15:50, Hugo Osvaldo Barrera wrote:
I have read a great deal regarding IPv6 and IIRC, if I subnet my
network block, my ISP would have to know it has to route traffic to that
subnet through the WAN IP address of my router.
Yes. If they don't allow that, then they don't know what they are doing.
You're not supposed to assign a /48 to a single link. A single link gets
a /64.
But how would they know though which single IP to route the rest of the
subnets?
I mean, if I assign:
2800:40:402:ffff::1/64 to my router's WAN interface
(2800:40:402:ffff::ffff is it's default gateway)
2800:40:402::1/64 to it's LAN interface
2800:40:402::2/64 to one of my clients
Doesn't my ISP need to know that traffic to 2800:40:402::1 should be
routed through 2800:40:402:ffff::1?
Yes. They need to tell you the address. Call and ask them.
Simon
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