> On 2 Feb 2019, at 20:36, v.villen...@gmail.com wrote:
> 
> On 2019/02/01 16:18:10, dak wrote:
>> raising or lowering one chord note
>> by an octave does not guarantee that it ends up at the far end of the
> chord,
>> like when using invertChords on a c:11 chord for the fifth inversion.
> 
> Oh.  Then this becomes a whole other can of worms; what should be the
> correct inversion of an 11th chord?
> 
> Should
> <c' e' g' b' d'' f''>
> become
> <e' g' b' d'' f'' c'''> (as you seem to suggest)
> or
> <e' g' b' c'' d'' f''> (as the current code produces)?
> 
> I’ll ask on the list as well.

A music dictionary says an inversion of a chord is done by raising the lowest 
note to a higher octave. Thus, the chord has as many inversions as pitch 
classes, excluding the root.



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