I was not referring to Sapir-Whorf (which has been "proved," disproved," 
"strawmanned," and "nuanced," repeatedly.

I was simply saying that the "physical" cannot be more than a signal, either 
present or not present. Anything after that is cultural, even something as 
simple as giving it a name.

davew


On Tue, Oct 6, 2026, at 4:17 PM, Jochen Fromm wrote:
> Good point. If you mean the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis that the structure of a 
> language shapes and influences its speakers' worldview, cognition, and 
> perception of reality then I would assign it to the cultural part b)
> 
> -J.
> 
> 
> -------- Original message --------
> From: Prof David West <[email protected]>
> Date: 10/6/26 4:09 PM (GMT+01:00)
> To: [email protected]
> Subject: Re: [FRIAM] A field theory of understanding
> 
> Maybe just a curiosity, but; because you mention color as an irreducible 
> physical part—
> 
> If a human perceives a color, acknowledges its existence, would you not 
> expect the language used by that human would include a name for that color?
> 
>  - languages with only two color terms exist, and those colors, always, are 
> black and white, or closer to 'warm' and 'cold'.
>  - languages with exactly three color terms exist and those colors, always, 
> are black, white, and red
>  - languages with exactly four color terms exist and those colors, always, 
> are black, white, red, and green
>  - languages with exactly five color terms exist and those colors, always, 
> are black, white, red, green, and brown 
>  - languages with exactly six color terms exist and those colors, always, are 
> black, white, red, green, brown, and purple
>  after that there is no pattern
> 
> Similar differences in the areas of pain/pleasure and the five(six) tastes.
> 
> This would suggest, to me, that the physical can be no more than 'signal" [ 
> on | off ] and anything other than that, linguistic term or expressed 
> perception, e.g., "ouch" is probably cultural, definitely not simply physical.
> 
> davew
> 
> 
> On Mon, Oct 5, 2026, at 5:13 PM, Jochen Fromm wrote:
>> I also see only some emails. Don't know why. 
>> 
>> Yes, a subjective experience is always linked to a specific subject. I would 
>> say we can divide subjective experience into
>> 
>> a) a physical part that depends on molecular biology and genes: receptors 
>> for pain and pleasure, for red, green and blue colors or sweet, salty, sour 
>> and bitter taste. this part is irreducible and depends on our species
>> b) a cultural part that defines subjective meaning (in China for example the 
>> colors white and red have different meaning than in Europe)
>> c) a personal part that depends on the history of a person
>> 
>> The mathematics used in the proofs describes more the personal part c) and 
>> perhaps part b) if we model the history of whole countries.
>> 
>> -J.
>> 
>> 
>> -------- Original message --------
>> From: Santafe <[email protected]>
>> Date: 10/5/26 8:08 PM (GMT+01:00)
>> To: The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group <[email protected]>
>> Subject: Re: [FRIAM] A field theory of understanding
>> 
>> For whatever reason, Jochen’s posts don’t forward to me, so I only see them 
>> in the later context of somebody else’s replies.  In this case EricC’s, on 
>> Nick’s. 
>> 
>> I will clip to the focal sentence (acknowledging all that was clipped):
>> 
>>>> > Claude was not happy about the theorem proofs that Gemini created.
>>>> > And Jon also mentioned that they are not waterproof. So I asked Claude
>>>> > and Gemini if they could write a new proof. They could. I asked them
>>>> > if we could use gauge theory to explain subjective experience - gauge
>>>> > invariance to describe objectivity, and symmetry breaking for
>>>> > subjectivity.
>> 
>> I think there was a time when I had enthusiasm for using these 
>> mathematical-physics metaphors.  Something has apparently happened.  
>> 
>> I probably said, a while ago (so if you feel like it, forgive the 
>> repetition), that since I don’t know what philosophers mean by objective and 
>> subjective, I could take the more defensive posture of being a linguistic 
>> semanticist, which to me seems like a more pragmatist standing-point anyway, 
>> leaving many further mistakes for the future rather than making them all at 
>> once.
>> 
>> I could take “objective” and “subjective” to be two speech registers, in an 
>> ordinary lexical/grammatical-semantics sense.  A sentence in an “objective” 
>> register is one that I can parse to a meaning (in the everyday sense; not in 
>> some formal logic that everyday speech doesn’t use and that would need to be 
>> invented) without needing as input who said it.  A sentence in a 
>> “subjective” register is one that cannot be parsed to a meaning without 
>> reference to some speaker (in whatever representation; maybe more or less 
>> explicit), which must thus be supplied.
>> 
>> _Why_ we use those registers, why we have been handed them down from past 
>> speakers innumerable, and how our experienced lives reward or discourage the 
>> adoption of such registers, looks to me like a question that can to some 
>> degree (as good a degree as anything in semantics) be separated or factored 
>> from the classification of the locutions.
>> 
>> Eric
>> 
>> 
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