On Mon, Mar 17, 2008 at 5:25 PM, Ed Murphy <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > >> >> Is it reasonable to interpret assets as being transferred from a > >> >> state of being unowned to a state of being owned by <entity>? > It can't, but go back and read what I wrote earlier; there is another > interpretation of transference that you haven't addressed.
Assuming you're referring to what I quoted... I don't think being "transferred to a state of being owned by" and entity is a reasonable interpretation of an asset being "transferred to" it. The latter (as evidenced by its wording and by the later statements of R2166 involving transfers) implies that the "sender" and "receiver" are entities. If an asset is transferred from the ownership of X to the ownership of Y, you can say that it was transferred from X to Y with respect to ownership. But there is no such equivalence for transferring between states.
