On 10/28/06, William Stein <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > > >> 3. Does 0 coerce into any other finite field? In other words, does > >> F2(0)+F1(0) make sense? > > > > Good question. I guess it wouldn't make any more or less sense than > > any other elements of those fields. > > Yes, F2(0) + F1(0) would make sense and would be the 0 element of F2.
If I understand things correctly, I like this design model more than GAP's. For GAP finite fields, the elements of GF(q^k) which belong to GF(q) are automatically coerced into it. (At least this is one way of interpreting the GAP finite field set-up.) In particular, the zero element belongs to the prime field. > > William > > > > --~--~---------~--~----~------------~-------~--~----~ To post to this group, send email to sage-devel@googlegroups.com To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/sage-devel URLs: http://sage.scipy.org/sage/ and http://modular.math.washington.edu/sage/ -~----------~----~----~----~------~----~------~--~---
