Since we're not arguing how much an insurance claim should pay... and I know
I don't understand all the nuances about how the "replacement value" clause
is applied, I'd argue that the ultimate price any bike/frame would command
would be driven by market demand, and not by how much it went for when it
was manufactured/sold as new.

In the case of Rivendell bikes, my position would be that if I absolutely
want that bike/frame for whatever reason, I'd be willing to pay more for
them. If I just consider them older/used, then I'd expect to pay less for
them than a brand new equivalent I'd buy from Rivendell.

An analogy, although perhaps not the best one, would be that as soon as
production was stopped on a given model, just like a photographer destroying
the negative of a given picture (Ansel Adams did this), the price for
existing ones could actually go up as they are now potential collector's
items.

Should an original parallel top tube Bombadil command a higher, equal or
lower price than a new diagonal tube Bombadil? It all depends on what you're
after.

René

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