Hi there I'm running an openvpn server with a /24 netmask for available IP client addresses. We're still under 100 clients so this hasn't become an issue yet, but I just noticed that a Windows client was saying it got it's openvpn IP client address from a DHCP server running on the .254 address...
The server is actually set up to use the .1 address (ie "ifconfig x.y.z.1 255.255.255.0"), so as far as I'm concerned, the .254 address is available for a client. But the last thing I want is a client getting that address and suddenly unicast DHCP queries start failing (because they're hitting a client instead of a server) I know the is "DHCP emulation" - which could mean this is all smoke-n-mirrors and doesn't actually have any negative effect - but I thought I'd ask. But I would also ask why it couldn't have declared itself to be the .1 address - as that is internally consistent? Thanks -- Cheers Jason Haar Corporate Information Security Manager, Trimble Navigation Ltd. Phone: +1 408 481 8171 PGP Fingerprint: 7A2E 0407 C9A6 CAF6 2B9F 8422 C063 5EBB FE1D 66D1 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Go from Idea to Many App Stores Faster with Intel(R) XDK Give your users amazing mobile app experiences with Intel(R) XDK. Use one codebase in this all-in-one HTML5 development environment. Design, debug & build mobile apps & 2D/3D high-impact games for multiple OSs. http://pubads.g.doubleclick.net/gampad/clk?id=254741911&iu=/4140 _______________________________________________ Openvpn-users mailing list Openvpn-users@lists.sourceforge.net https://lists.sourceforge.net/lists/listinfo/openvpn-users
