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Hello FreeSurfer experts,

I have this interesting situation. I understand its important to include
ICV as a covariate while conducting cortical volume (CV) analysis.

So for my clinical sample (CL) vs healthy-controls (HCs):
1. If I do *network-wise* analysis (i.e., after parcellating the whole
brain into 17 networks), I get highly significant differences in CV
(MANCOVA: CL < HCs) for a specific network (say N1) - *if I include ICV as
a covariate*, but not otherwise.
2. If I do *whole-brain vertex-wise* analysis, I get highly significant
differences in CV (CL < HCs) for a specific cluster (which is overlapping
with an area of N1) - *if I do not include ICV as a covariate*, but not
otherwise.

I am not sure how to interpret this i.e., ICV as a covariate for
network-wise analysis plays an opposite role i.e., makes my findings
stronger compared to ICV as a covariate for whole-brain vertex-wise
analysis i.e., makes my findings weaker. Does ICV as a covariate add some
kind of noise during whole-brain vertex-wise analysis?

I would really appreciate any help in understanding this.
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