Hi Fabio
If you want to
compare a lme model including only a single random effect for the
intercept term against the same model but including only a single random
effect for the slope term all you need to do is to choose the one
with higher maximum likelihood after model fitting.
However if you
are using time-since-baseline as your time measure then a
model with a single random effect for the slope doesn't make sense.
In that particular case the fact that t0(baseline time)=0 for every
subject makes the model unable to model correlations between the
first and other measurements on the same subject. Therefore, in that particular
case, you have
to include intercept as a random effect and compare that model with
the same model including intercept and slope. If you only have at
most 2 repeated measurements for each subject then the only possible
model is one with a single random effect otherwise you are
over-fitting the data.
lme_mass_LR can only
be used with q>=1 which means you can not use it to compare a
model without random effects with a model including random effects.
Best
-Jorge
>________________________________
> De: "Bernardoni, Fabio" <fabio.bernard...@uniklinikum-dresden.de>
>Para: "freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu" <freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu>
>Enviado: Martes 16 de septiembre de 2014 8:27
>Asunto: [Freesurfer] how to choose the best random effect in LME models
>
>
>
>
>Dear Freesurfer Users,
>
>I am trying different LME models to describe the time evolution of cortical
>thickness in anorexia patients. The LME tools provide a function (lme_mass_LR)
>to test whether a model with q+1 random effects is better (fits the data
>better) than one with q random
effects, eg whether a model with random intercept and slope is better than one
with only intercept random.
>
>I have two questions:
>1- is there a similar function to test whether the model with intercept as a
>random effect is better than the model with slope as a random effect (ie two
>models with the same number of random effects)? In another thread I read one
>should judge which random
effect is to be chosen from the percentage of voxels where one has
convergence. It sounds reasonable, but an explanation of why this should be so
would be welcome.
>2- does it make sense to use lme_mass_LR to test whether a model with 1 random
>effect is better than one with 0 random effects? I have it with something like:
>
>LR_pval = lme_mass_LR(lhstats_0RE,lhstats_1RE,0);
>
>And I get as a result LR_pval= 0.3 (a constant vector) which I do not know how
>to interpret: something wrong, this test does not make any sense, choose the 0
>random effect model ...
>
>Thanks in advance for your help.
>
>Cheers,
>Fabio
>
>
>
>Dr. Fabio Bernardoni
>wiss. Mitarbeiter
>Klinik und Poliklinik für Kinder- und Jugendpsychiatrie und -psychotherapie
>
>Tel. +49 (0)351 458-5245
>Fax +49 (0)351 458-7206
>
>Universitätsklinikum Carl Gustav Carus
>an der Technischen Universität Dresden
>Anstalt des öffentlichen Rechts des Freistaates Sachsen
>Fetscherstraße 74, 01307 Dresden
>http://www.uniklinikum-dresden.de
>Vorstand: Prof. Dr. med. D. M. Albrecht (Sprecher), Wilfried E. B. Winzer
>Vorsitzender des Aufsichtsrates: Prof. Dr. med. Peter C. Scriba
>USt.-IDNr.: DE 140 135 217, St.-Nr.: 203 145 03113
>
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