2008/8/13 Geoffrey Spear <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>: > I believe it's 754(1) that grants them meaning, since those words have > no ordinary-language meaning. I'd say they represent either a > difference in spelling or dialect, depending on your view of whether a > language variation with a tiny number of adherents that isn't > geographically constrained really constitutes a "dialect" or not. And, > I suppose, your view of whether "e" could really be considered a > "different spelling" of something like "he, she, or it". >
he or she, surely. We don't call objects "e" do we?
