> >> But if the Persian name for the Persian language is, in transliteration, >> *Fārsī*, >> is it really logical for the Persian nation (or should I here be writing >> "Iranian" ? >> This is quite a linguistic minefield) to seek to tell the West that while >> it >> is perfectly normal for a Persian (Iranian) to call his language *Fārsī*, >> we in the >> west must call it Persian ?! >> >> > Why not? > > People of Turkey call their language Turkce, while the language name in English is Turkish, will you say "he speaks Turkce" or you say "he speaks Turkish"?
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