2017-10-16 14:05 GMT+02:00 Christoph Hormann <o...@imagico.de>: > On Monday 16 October 2017, Martin Koppenhoefer wrote: > > > > I think we don't map individual land ownership or land use rights > > because of privacy concerns [...] > > No, we don't map land ownership because it is usually not verifiable > which is partly due to privacy concerns from side of the cadastral > legislations. In Germany for example land ownership records are not > public, they may only be viewed by parties with a justified interest. > >
if it isn't verifiable there's no question, but if it is verifiable because the border or its description was published (not the case here according to Dave), then we could map it. > This is of no relevance here of course, landuse=industrial is simply > factually wrong because most of the land is not actually used for > industrial purposes. +1, I agree, although landuse isn't perfectly defined on a formal level to exclude such tagging (e.g. by using vocabulary like "primary use of land", which wouldn't make it wrong here). Cheers, Martin
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