> > > What is the evidence
> > > for non-migration?
> > What do you mean by non-migration?
>
> By non-migration I refer to the supposed alternative
> that these "There
> was no Aryan Invasion / Migration" proponents
> purport to propose (I
> sound like Sir Humprey Appleby!).
:)
>
> > I hope you dont
> > think that Indoeuropean languages all came from
> > india:) Seriously - you have any particular theory
> in
> > mind?
>
> Of course not! I am on *your* side, Frank. I am
> saying that linguistic
> research indicates the migration of people from
> Central Asia into
> India some 3000-4000 years ago.
Yes, it does. Actually, there are some who think that
North of the Caucusus or even the Black Sea (although
I am not aware of anyone in recent memory) might be
the land of the original Indoeuropeans.
I think I better come clean why I am messing about in
this discussion: While at college, I wrote a long
essay about the so-called "Avestan people", the
purported (that word again) "tribe" Zarathustra was
supposedly a member of. Needless to say, we know next
to nothing about them.
-Frank
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