On 1/26/06, Frank Pohlmann <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > I agree that the scientific method needs to be
> > applied to history as
> > well. The evidence for a Aryan migration to India
> > comes from fields as
> > diverse as linguistics, genetics and archeology.
> > What is the evidence
> > for non-migration?
> What do you mean by non-migration?
By non-migration I refer to the supposed alternative that these "There
was no Aryan Invasion / Migration" proponents purport to propose (I
sound like Sir Humprey Appleby!).
> I hope you dont
> think that Indoeuropean languages all came from
> india:) Seriously - you have any particular theory in
> mind?
Of course not! I am on *your* side, Frank. I am saying that linguistic
research indicates the migration of people from Central Asia into
India some 3000-4000 years ago.
Thaths
--
"Bart! With $10,000 we'd be millionaires! We could buy all kinds of
useful things... like love." -- Homer J. Simpson
