You can get an estimate for the omitted baseline category by not estimating
the intercept. To do that, type "-1" on the right-hand side of the
regression statement. If that was your actual question, the simple question,
"How can I omit the baseline in a regression?," would have sufficed.
Moreover,
Dear Daniel,
I was thinking on what's wrong with you, and what it is supposed you're
trying to critisize without knowing my work or any other detail. For your
knowledge, the model I've sent was just an example; I've fitted 17
different models (no interactions, only one factor, etc) and of course
t
On Oct 7, 2011, at 1:32 AM, Daniel Malter wrote:
Note that the whole model screams at you that it is wrongly modeled.
You are
running a fully interacted model with factor variables. Thus, you
have 19
regressors plus the baseline for 150 observations. Note that all your
coefficients are insi
I need to quote David Winsemius on this one again: "The advancement of
science would be safer if you knew what you were doing."
Note that the whole model screams at you that it is wrongly modeled. You are
running a fully interacted model with factor variables. Thus, you have 19
regressors plus the
Hi to all of you,
I'm fitting an full factorial probit model from an experiment, and I've the
independent variables as factors. The model is as follows:
fit16<-glm(Sube ~ as.factor(CE)*as.factor(CEBO)*as.factor(Luz),
family=binomial(link="probit"), data=experimento)
but, when I took a look to t
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