It doesn't converge because in your first post you said assume(f>0)
Its convergence is the same as integral( cos(2 * pi * f * t), t , 0 , Infinity) (think about area under a curve...). By the way, sage gives: sage: t = var("t") sage: x = var("x") sage: assume(x>0) sage: integral( cos(2 * pi * x * t), t , 0 , Infinity) ind What is "ind"? On Mon, Sep 22, 2008 at 3:18 AM, Nasser Abbasi <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > > > On Sep 21, 10:34 pm, Nasser Abbasi <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >> Let me rewrite what I wrote in last post again, since it did not >> format well. >> > > I think it is still not clear, so I wrote it in latex via SW, here it > is again as screen image and PDF file > > http://12000.org/tmp/092108/eq.gif > > http://12000.org/tmp/092108/eq.pdf > > I hope this is more clear. > > Nasser > > > --~--~---------~--~----~------------~-------~--~----~ To post to this group, send email to sage-support@googlegroups.com To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/sage-support URLs: http://www.sagemath.org -~----------~----~----~----~------~----~------~--~---