On Sat, 27 Dec 2008 01:41:40 +0100, Stef Mientki wrote:

> Sorry if I offended someone, that was certainly not my intention. And I
> guess you will be surprised, if I tell you, I don't (want) to understand
> any bit of the above code ;-) Come on, the home computer was invented
> about 1980. If we look at hardware, it follows the Moore's law, for
> software I would expect at least 0.1 of Moore's law ;-) I hope that
> clarifies my point.

No, that only makes it even more confusing. What does Moore's Law have to 
do with your willful ignorance about the existence of human languages 
other than English?



-- 
Steven
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