James Stroud <jstr...@mbi.ucla.edu> writes: > Ben Finney wrote: > > James Stroud <jstr...@mbi.ucla.edu> writes: > > > >> Yes. I think it was the British who decided that the apostrophe > >> rule for "it" would be reversed from normal usage relative to > >> just about every other noun.
It also seems an indefensible claim to say that anyone “decided” it would be that way, especially “the British”. > > Remember that “it” is a pronoun. I see no reversal: > > Ok. Pronouns are reversed. Or, more generally: Pronouns, which are different in just about every other way from other nouns, are different in this way also. Is that about right? -- \ “I met my girlfriend in Macy's; she was buying clothes, and I | `\ was putting Slinkies on the escalators.” —Steven Wright | _o__) | Ben Finney -- http://mail.python.org/mailman/listinfo/python-list