On 12/8/2009 11:12 AM, Tony Rogers wrote:
Hello, Apologies for the length of this post. My domain is example.com - the server relays all mail for *...@example.com to an exchange server. I have a requirement where I need to redirect email for u...@example.com to u...@bloggs.com. u...@example.com does not exist on our system. What I have done is the following: content of /etc/postfix /virtual -------------------------------- anythinghere.com VIRTUALDOMAIN u...@example.com u...@bloggs.com
You probably don't need the "anythinghere.com VIRTUAL" entry. That's only for virtual_alias_domains.
Other than that, it is correct to use virtual_alias_maps for ad-hoc u...@foo to f...@bar aliasing.
/etc/main.cf ------------ virtual_alias_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/virtual I have also run postmap against /etc/virtual. - Now - this works fine but!!! This is what I see in /var/log/maillog Dec 4 12:22:40 my_server_name postfix/pipe[7162]: A973D9170E: to=<u...@bloggs.com>, orig_to=<u...@example.com>, relay=spamassassin, delay=3, status=sent (my_server_name)
So where does it go after spamassassin processes it?
However - the person on the receiving end doesn't get the email - it appears to end up in some administrator mailbox (not much detail - and I haven't been able to get more) - which suggests an over zealous spam filter on their side. I have tested this to my own home account *and* to Hotmail and it worked fine in both cases. So my question is: ------------------ Have I done this correctly? I looked on the postfix site and various man pages - and picked up a hint that perhaps I should be using canonical for this - but I'm not sure....
Assuming your postfix delivers to the proper destination server, then yes, this is correct.
Once your postfix has delivered the message, it's out of your control what the other system does with it.
-- Noel Jones
