Re: Foreign Key Validation after Reference Table Ownership Change

[Louis Battuello]

Agreed. It would certainly make sense that user_2 have usage on the schema in 
order to operate against the table owned by user_2. I just found it confusing 
that the discrepancy would cause an issue for user_1, which had all necessary 
privileges on the schema and references on the reference table. Why would an 
issue with user_2’s ACL manifest itself with a foreign key validation on insert 
by user_1 on a table owned by user_1?