Hi,
The MDV=1 implies that your observation at that time point is missing. Zero is
not the same as missing information and will contribute to the MOFV.Whether you
treat the observation as zero (which makes sense for a non-endogenous analyte)
or you exclude that (assumed) observation/time point altogether from your
dataset should not affect your PK parameter estimates significantly. The latter
approach may be the way to go..
Just my 2 cents!
Regards,
J.O.
> Date: Mon, 13 Apr 2009 22:24:29 +0800
> From: fang.c...@yahoo.com.cn
> To: nmusers@globomaxnm.com
> Subject:
>
>
> Hi!
> Dear all!
> My samples were collected after a single intramuscular injection. One
> individuals provies only one tissue samples within the whole study. I found
> the MOFV were quite different between the MDV was used or not.
>
> In my opinion, the concentration in tissue at T0 must be 0 because of the
> intramuscular administration. So the concentration at T0 was not a real
> observed 0 but a assumed 0. The question was that if i treated the T0
> concentration as a MDV, the MOFV was quite different from treating it as a
> real obesrved concentration.
>
> Whether the MDV should be used in my case? Can anyone help me with this
> problem?
>
> Thanks in advance!
>
>
> Fang Ke
>
>
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