It is a proof by induction; that is the inductive hypothesis. On Mon, Nov 4, 2019 at 8:09 AM 'Filip Cernatescu' via Metamath < [email protected]> wrote:
> > > I understand that: > >> The proof is by induction: x^1 = x so the derivative is 1 = 1 * x^(1-1), >> and x^(n+1) = x^n * x so the derivative is (x^n)' * x + x^n * x' = (n * >> x^(n-1)) * x + x^n = (n+1) * x^n. >> > > but how you prove that: (x^n)'= (n * x^(n-1)), is something recursive? > > -- > You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups > "Metamath" group. > To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an > email to [email protected]. > To view this discussion on the web visit > https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/metamath/b5b18fc6-0652-4ba4-becb-4f70fd81fc29%40googlegroups.com > <https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/metamath/b5b18fc6-0652-4ba4-becb-4f70fd81fc29%40googlegroups.com?utm_medium=email&utm_source=footer> > . > -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Metamath" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/metamath/CAFXXJSss8ZNSnNnv4La_vwFULt7C0vACAvombUYHZQzEXA4t_w%40mail.gmail.com.
