And also this one: Given `INFINITE N` and a fixed number `m`, how can I assert the existence of another number `n` such that,
m <= n /\ n IN N i.e. prove that ``!N m. INFINITE N ==> ?n. m <= n /\ n IN N`` --Chun Il 15/02/19 20:11, Chun Tian (binghe) ha scritto: > Hi, > > I'm blocked at the following (strange) situation: > > I have an infinite set of integers (num) in which each integer n > satisfies a property P(n): > > ∃N. INFINITE N ∧ ∀n. n ∈ N ⇒ P n > > Suppose above proposition is NOT true, how can I derive that, there must > exist a number m such that for all n >= m, P(n) does NOT hold? i.e. > > ?m. !n. m <= n ==> ~(P n) > > Thanks in advance, > > Chun Tian >
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