On Thu, Sep 26, 2024 at 06:48:13PM +0200, Walter Alejandro Iglesias wrote: > Some may find it strange that I have associated the 'ñ' with the 'p' and > not with the 'n'. Well, in Spanish there are cases in which the 'ñ' is > not treated as an 'n', while some syllables can end in 'n' (e.g. > pan-ta-lón), no syllable ends in 'ñ'. I explain this to you so that you > understand that you must study and deduce for yourself what you have to > do based on the rules of your language.
This last thing I said is wrong, since there are also syllables in Spanish that end with 'p', like "ap-nea", "ap-to", "sep-tiembre". There was some issue associating 'ñ' with 'n' but, unfortunately, I don't remember what, sorry. I hope my explanation is helpful anyway. :-) -- Walter
