I have found the following assertion in two different, presumably reliable, sources:
A 35-percent increase in water productivity could reduce the agricultural share of water consumption from 80 percent to 20 percent in many areas. This does not make quantitative sense to me. In one case, it is in a book I would like to use in a class but I really don't feel I can use the book unless I can explain this statement to the students. What additional assumptions are involved? How can the math work out on this? HELP! Many thanks for any quantitative explanation. Judy Judith Ann Halstead Professor of Chemistry Skidmore College Saratoga Springs, NY 12866 email= [email protected]
