On Mon, Sep 23, 2024 at 3:27 PM Anton Khirnov <an...@khirnov.net> wrote: > > Quoting Antoni Bizoń (2024-09-23 10:09:51) > > I understand that the r_frame_rate is the lowest framerate with which > > all timestamps can be represented accurately. And I know it is just a > > guess. But why did the logic behind the calculation change? > > Because you're most likely using a codec like H.264 or MPEG-2 that > allows individually coded fields. In that case the timebase must be > accurate enough to represent the field rate (i.e. double the frame > rate), but the code doing this was previously unreliable, so you'd > sometimes get r_frame_rate equal to the frame rate rather than field > rate. That is not the case anymore.
This is bizarre and kafkaesque to say the least. Kieran _______________________________________________ ffmpeg-devel mailing list ffmpeg-devel@ffmpeg.org https://ffmpeg.org/mailman/listinfo/ffmpeg-devel To unsubscribe, visit link above, or email ffmpeg-devel-requ...@ffmpeg.org with subject "unsubscribe".
