Quoting Antoni Bizoń (2024-09-23 10:09:51) > I understand that the r_frame_rate is the lowest framerate with which > all timestamps can be represented accurately. And I know it is just a > guess. But why did the logic behind the calculation change?
Because you're most likely using a codec like H.264 or MPEG-2 that allows individually coded fields. In that case the timebase must be accurate enough to represent the field rate (i.e. double the frame rate), but the code doing this was previously unreliable, so you'd sometimes get r_frame_rate equal to the frame rate rather than field rate. That is not the case anymore. -- Anton Khirnov _______________________________________________ ffmpeg-devel mailing list ffmpeg-devel@ffmpeg.org https://ffmpeg.org/mailman/listinfo/ffmpeg-devel To unsubscribe, visit link above, or email ffmpeg-devel-requ...@ffmpeg.org with subject "unsubscribe".
