On 4 February 2014 23:25, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:

>
> On 04 Feb 2014, at 00:29, LizR wrote:
>
> On 4 February 2014 12:23, Jesse Mazer <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> On Mon, Feb 3, 2014 at 5:48 PM, <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>>>
>>> But more generically speaking, would this inference for blocktime sit at
>>> the edge of relativity or at its core. What I mean is, beyond that it is an
>>> implication of relativity, have there been or are there any prospects for
>>> developing blocktime as it arises from relativity to such point,
>>> predictions get made? Or any other kind of reinforcement? Or does blocktime
>>> go on to imply something beyond blocktime?
>>>
>>
>> If "block time" is taken as a definite ontological statement about all
>> times "existing" in exactly the same sense, rather than just referring to
>> the idea of treating time as a dimension conceptually or in our
>> mathematical models, then I think it's a metaphysical postulate that goes
>> beyond anything directly implied by relativity. Relativity says that all
>> frames, with their different definitions of simultaneity, are on equal
>> footing as far as the laws of physics are concerned, but it doesn't deal
>> with ontology. If someone proposes that one frame's definition of
>> simultaneity is "metaphysically preferred" in the sense it defines the
>> "true present", but adds the caveat that this frame is not in any way
>> physically preferred so that no conceivable experiment could determine
>> which frame it is, this wouldn't contradict the physics. It would be an
>> "interpretation" of SR, similar to the different "interpretations" of QM
>> which postulate different things about ontology (the real existence of
>> other worlds in the MWI, or a single world with hidden variables in Bohmian
>> mechanics, for example) but are indistinguishable experimentally.
>>
>
> SR directly demonstrates block time via the relativity of simultaneity.
> This can be tested experimentally.
>
>>
>> That said, if you subscribe to any form of Occam's razor or even a
>> criteria of "elegance" when it comes to choosing between different
>> metaphysical hypotheses, it seems a lot simpler to assume that there is no
>> metaphysically preferred definition of simultaneity, just as I think many
>> would agree the MWI is the simplest way of interpreting the physical theory
>> of QM. Adding extra "purely metaphysical" entities to a theory, which don't
>> correspond to anything that appears in the mathematical formalism of the
>> theory itself (which would apply to things like a "true present" or to
>> hidden variables in QM), seems a bit like postulating that there are
>> invisible intangible elves sitting on each person's head which have no
>> causal effects on anything we can measure; sure it's logically possible,
>> but it seems like a very inelegant and arbitrary way for reality to work.
>>
>> The MWI is deterministic, however, and hence has hidden variables.
>
> But not "hidden variable" in the EPR sense. In the MWI, there are hidden
> universes, they are not variable, but terms in the universal wave, and we
> just don't know which terms apply to us. If it was hidden variable in the
> EPR sense, then by Bell, they would be non-local, and you would conclude
> falsely (like Clark) that the MWI has to be non local (which I doubt very
> much).
>
> No, as I explained elsewhere, Bell's inequality rests on 4 assumptions,
and the easiest assumption to remove is that time is asmmetric at the
fundamental level (which *in any case* physics indicates it isn't, except
for neutral kaon decay - which I dount has ever been used in an EPR
experiment).

Locality and realism are almost certainly preserved, as Einstein suspected,
even though Bell's inequality is violated.

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