On Mon, Feb 3, 2014 at 5:48 PM, <[email protected]> wrote:

>
> But more generically speaking, would this inference for blocktime sit at
> the edge of relativity or at its core. What I mean is, beyond that it is an
> implication of relativity, have there been or are there any prospects for
> developing blocktime as it arises from relativity to such point,
> predictions get made? Or any other kind of reinforcement? Or does blocktime
> go on to imply something beyond blocktime?
>


If "block time" is taken as a definite ontological statement about all
times "existing" in exactly the same sense, rather than just referring to
the idea of treating time as a dimension conceptually or in our
mathematical models, then I think it's a metaphysical postulate that goes
beyond anything directly implied by relativity. Relativity says that all
frames, with their different definitions of simultaneity, are on equal
footing as far as the laws of physics are concerned, but it doesn't deal
with ontology. If someone proposes that one frame's definition of
simultaneity is "metaphysically preferred" in the sense it defines the
"true present", but adds the caveat that this frame is not in any way
physically preferred so that no conceivable experiment could determine
which frame it is, this wouldn't contradict the physics. It would be an
"interpretation" of SR, similar to the different "interpretations" of QM
which postulate different things about ontology (the real existence of
other worlds in the MWI, or a single world with hidden variables in Bohmian
mechanics, for example) but are indistinguishable experimentally.

That said, if you subscribe to any form of Occam's razor or even a criteria
of "elegance" when it comes to choosing between different metaphysical
hypotheses, it seems a lot simpler to assume that there is no
metaphysically preferred definition of simultaneity, just as I think many
would agree the MWI is the simplest way of interpreting the physical theory
of QM. Adding extra "purely metaphysical" entities to a theory, which don't
correspond to anything that appears in the mathematical formalism of the
theory itself (which would apply to things like a "true present" or to
hidden variables in QM), seems a bit like postulating that there are
invisible intangible elves sitting on each person's head which have no
causal effects on anything we can measure; sure it's logically possible,
but it seems like a very inelegant and arbitrary way for reality to work.

Jesse

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