On Monday, June 16, 2025 at 6:26:36 AM UTC-6 John Clark wrote:

On Sun, Jun 15, 2025 at 10:32 PM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:

*> I fail to see how the EP implies geodesic motion. If true, the proof 
must be exceedingly subtle.*


*I'll try one more time. If you are in freefall then you experience no 
gravity, so from your perspective your local spacetime is flat and things 
move in a path that is the shortest distance between two points, a 
Euclidean straight line. But from my perspective standing on the Earth's 
surface you are being affected by gravity and are moving through spacetime 
that is curved and non-Euclidean. The Equivalence Principle says both 
points of view are equally valid, but the only way that could be true is if 
I see you moving in a path that is the shortest distance between two points 
in 4D non-Euclidean space, and that is a geodesic.*


*Thank you. I have some questions about your "proof". First, why is the 
shortest distance between two point on a curved manifold a geodesic, and 
second, perhaps more important, how can your proof depend on a principle, 
the EP, which depends on an imprecise measuremen of tidal forces? AG *


*> If we assume mass/energy somehow causes a distortion in spacetime 
gemetry, and we hold a test mass spatially at rest in a gravity field, the 
question "why does it move"*


*If you are holding an object and standing motionless on the Earth's 
surface then you and the object are still following a path through 4D 
non-Euclidean spacetime because both of you are still moving through time, 
but that path is NOT a geodesic because a force is being applied to the 
bottom of your feet. When you release the object its spacetime path 
suddenly changes to that of a geodesic while your path remains 
non-geodesic. *


*The logical necessity of that sudden change to a geodesic is not yet 
convincing. You claim it's related or caused by the EP, but the object 
suddenly shifting to that geodesic motion "knows" nothing about the EP and 
free fall in a gravity field. I prefer to reach that conclusion via a 
postulate, but I could be wrong. AG*

*And things on different spacetime paths is the definition of "movement".*


*As I wrote, and I think you agree, time doesn't exist because clocks do, 
but because there are things HAPPENING in the universe; for example, the 
motion of objects. The "movement" you describe above is caused by a 
gravitional mass in GR, so cannot be a vacuous universe within which time 
doesn't  exist. AG *


*>>My problem is I don't know what sort of explanation would satisfy you. *


*>A possible answer to my question might be the form of the equations of a 
geodesic path.*


*But that's what General Relativity's field equations do! They told 
Einstein what the geodesic would be in the curved non-Euclidean 4D 
spacetime 34 million miles from the sun, and it produced an orbit that was 
slightly different than the orbit Newton said it should have. *
 

* > I'm not sure, but space and time (here proper time) might be 
intertwinded in such a way that the spatial coordinates are forced to 
change because time continues to advance.*


*But that's what a spacetime map is, it shows the relationship between 
space and time. If gravity is not involved then the map is flat and the 
relationship is simple; but if gravity is involved then that relationship 
changes and becomes more complicated because the map is curved, and the 
more gravity there is the more curvature there is.     *
* John K Clark    See what's on my new list at  Extropolis 
<https://groups.google.com/g/extropolis>*
6hr


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