On Thu, Oct 17, 2002 at 04:38:46PM -0400, Sam Hartman wrote: > Except that dominates is (if I understand correctly) the appropriate > term-of-art.
I'm not sure what you mean by this. What is your basis for this statement? Here's my understanding: The only place the constitution uses the word "dominates" is in the appendix (A.6). The proposed constitutional ammendment replaces that part of the appendix. One of the reasons for proposing a new voting system is the ambiguity of the term "dominates" as defined by the constitution (A.6.2). Thanks, -- Raul
