On Mon, Dec 11, 2006 at 03:19:07AM -0600, Mike McCarty wrote: > [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote: > > [snip] > > >I've noticed the same kind of disputes in natural languages. For > >example, English speakers usually perceive a clear semantic difference > >between "many" and "much". Yet it's possible to give a purely syntactic > >rule to distinguish them -- you use "many" when modifying a plural noun, > >and "much" for a singular one.
Agreed. > This is not true. For example, I have said "I've eaten too much > beans". "I've eaten too many beans", though it isn't something > I've said, *could* be said, and would not mean quite the same Correct is "I've eaten too many beans". -- Chris. ====== " ... the official version cannot be abandoned because the implication of rejecting it is far too disturbing: that we are subject to a government conspiracy of `X-Files' proportions and insidiousness." Letter to the LA Times Magazine, September 18, 2005. -- To UNSUBSCRIBE, email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] with a subject of "unsubscribe". Trouble? Contact [EMAIL PROTECTED]
