Hi,
I'm trying to understand the following function (from
http://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Clojure_Programming/Examples/Lazy_Fibonacci#Self-Referential_Version):
(def fib-seq
(lazy-seq
(map +
(cons 0 (cons 0 fib-seq))
(cons 1 fib-seq))))
I'm trying to understand how this works. In particular, I do not
understand what the recursive call to fib-seq will return when the sequence
is lazily evaluated.
Here's my understanding so far:
The first time fib-seq is invoked, it has no head, and the function is the
tail. So we go into the first collection, where we append 0 and 0 to
fib-seq, which then '(0 0) . This is then mapped with the second
collection, which (because fib-seq has not returned anything yet) is '(1) .
Shouldn't map then raise an error because it is effectively being called
as (map + (0 0) (1)) ?
I would be very grateful for any insights.
Thanks
--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google
Groups "Clojure" group.
To post to this group, send email to clojure@googlegroups.com
Note that posts from new members are moderated - please be patient with your
first post.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to
clojure+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com
For more options, visit this group at
http://groups.google.com/group/clojure?hl=en
---
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
"Clojure" group.
To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email
to clojure+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/d/optout.
