I dont see any reason why it wouldnt, it has the router-ID in its OSPF database, and then it should work automagically..
Kim Syed Zaidi wrote: > Thats right it is just a 32 bit address to identify a router in OSPF.. > but it is not an IP address. This way I was thinking whether > configuring this address as the virtual link peer of the other ABR > shall enable to bring the virtual link up? > > > > On Fri, Sep 18, 2009 at 12:02 AM, Kim Pedersen <[email protected] > <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote: > > Hi, > > As far as i know, its purely the router ID, which can be > represented as an IP address, but in fact its just a 32bit number. > > Kim > > Syed Zaidi wrote: > > Hello! > > This is about Vlinks in OSPF. > > While configuring OSPF VL, we configure it between to non > area0 ABRs, here I would like to know about this..--> when we > actually configure these VLinks we define other ABR's > Router-id on both the ABRs... well, what I want to know here > is; whether this router-id can be the 32 bit address but NOT > an actual interface IP address of any interfaces on both the > ABRs? I mean is this setup ok, will it still bring the VIRTUAL > LINK up? > > Waiting for a quick answer ASAP. > > Regards, > Syed > > > ------------------------------------------------------------------------ > > _______________________________________________ > For more information regarding industry leading CCIE Lab > training, please visit www.ipexpert.com <http://www.ipexpert.com> > > > > -- > > // Freedom Matters > // Follow my progress on: http://kpjungle.wordpress.com > > -- // Freedom Matters // Follow my progress on: http://kpjungle.wordpress.com _______________________________________________ For more information regarding industry leading CCIE Lab training, please visit www.ipexpert.com
