Hi, Mike Gran <spk...@yahoo.com> writes:
>> Hi Mike, > >> Do I understand correctly that any copyright license comes with an >> implicit "lawful" condition so as to be considered valid, per the law of >> USA at least? And that making this explicit is thus not considered a >> restriction on the use? > > That is how I understand it. I am not a lawyer, but, I have had to read a > fair number > of government contracts. Thank you. To get confirmation from a more authoritative source, I've asked the question to same to FSF Licensing & Compliance Team; I'll report their response if any! -- Thanks, Maxim
