----- Original Message ----- From: "iaamoac" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> To: "Killer Bs Discussion" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Sent: Friday, March 12, 2004 8:57 AM Subject: Re: Race to the Bottom
> --- In [EMAIL PROTECTED], Gautam Mukunda <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > > Hell no. We were talking about that issue in my > > seminar on American identity years ago. Easterbrook > > is way behind the curve on this issue. I think I > > first read the argument 5-6 years ago, and I know Paul > > Samuelson had articles about it in the mainstream > > press at least 2-3 years ago. > > Raises hand! > > I know that as long as I've been on Brin-L, in previous discussions > of inequality I have suggested that surely the enormously large wave > of immigration being experienced by the United States is having some > effect on heighting inequality statistics. If it does, shouldn't it be measurable? For example, I'd argue that comparing the difference between white non-Hispanic and white (including Hispanics) rise in median income to the difference between the white median income and the median income of the top 5% of white households could give us a handle on how important the increase in immigration is. Further, I'd argue that the number of poor uneducated, white, non-Hispanic immigrants is actually lower now than it was in the '50s and '60s. Is this a reasonable measurement to indicate trends? If not, why not? Dan M. _______________________________________________ http://www.mccmedia.com/mailman/listinfo/brin-l
