--- Dan Minette <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> May I make a suggestion that will probably be
> ignored.  I'm betting both
> Nick and Gautam are accurately reflecting what they
> were taught.  I'm
> guessing they were taught different things.  I'd be
> interested in either a
> detailed examination of the proposition that the
> Vichie government was
> representative of the attitude of the French or that
> the Dryfuss affair was
> the work of a minority.
> 
> Dan M.

Dan - that sounds fine.  I think the argument is
simple:
1. Other countries in Western Europe managed to save a
far higher proportion of their Jews
2. Other countries in Europe managed to run far more
effective partisan Resistance campaigns
3. The _French_ Resistance was, from a military
standpoint, neglible (see John Keegan's The Second
World War, and any number of other books on the
subject), probably the least significant of that of
any occupied country.
4. The Vichy government had considerably more
independence from German control than the governments
of other occupied nations - in part because the Vichy
portion of France was not, in fact, occupied until
much later in the war.
5. Despite this fact, Jews in this part of France were
shipped off to their deaths, not just without any
protests on the part of the Vichy government, but with
its active connivance.
6. After the war, instead of dealing with the
realities of the extent of collaboration, France
engaged in a purposeful glorification of the
Resistance and a cover-up of the extent of Vichy
complicity in the murder of France's Jews.  This to
the extent that Francois Mitterand, an official in the
Vichy government (who later claimed to have worked
with the Resistance, a claim that has recently been
cast into some doubt) was elected President of France.
 The extent of the collaboration, however, was barely
dealt with at all - see Coco Chanel, for example (a
good reason to never buy your girlfriend Chanel No. 5,
I guess).

As far as I know, no one contests any of these facts. 
If the people of France did not, at least, look the
other way at the murder of their Jews, then how come
they didn't do something about it?  We know that it
_was possible_, because Denmark (and Bulgaria,
interestingly enough) succeeded in saving them.  It
wasn't the extent of German repression - German rule
was arguably less repressive in France than in any
other Occupied Country.  After the war, why didn't
they make a real effort to expose what happened?  Why
did it have to wait 50 years?  _Germany_ (admittedly,
at gun point) has done a far better job of dealing
with its record in the Second World War than France
has.  To be fair, Austria has done a far worse job.  I
would submit the reason was that the murder of Jews
wasn't something that France was going to get all that
upset about.  This doesn't make it _alone_ in European
history - it makes it one of the crowd.  With the
exception of Denmark (again), was there _any_ country
in Europe that cared very much?

The relevance of all of this to current events is not,
as far as I can tell, terribly clear, except for the
fact that opponents of the war seem to make the
argument that we should not fight because France does
not want us to.  Proponents of liberating Iraq argue,
fairly imo, that if that was our criterion, either
Nazis or Communists would currently be ruling Europe. 
So that's not a terribly good argument.

Gautam

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