On Mon, Jul 12, 2021 at 11:47:14PM +0100, ais523 via agora-discussion wrote:
> On Mon, 2021-07-12 at 15:40 -0700, Kerim Aydin via agora-discussion
> wrote:
> > Those arguments seem quite confusing, but this seems rather simple?  If
> > Person A and B are tied for the lead in something, does Person A have the
> > most?  No, Person B has just as much.  And vice versa.  There is no person
> > with the most, so nobody gets it.  The End?
> 
> I think the argument is that because the rule uses "the", it implies
> that exactly one such person exists, and thus creates a legal fiction
> that one such person exists: we merely have to figure out who.
> 
> I don't think the argument holds up, but it's an interesting direction
> to go in.
> 
> -- 
> ais523
> 

Yes, that's what I had in mind.

-- 
Falsifian

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