On Mon, 2021-07-12 at 15:40 -0700, Kerim Aydin via agora-discussion wrote: > Those arguments seem quite confusing, but this seems rather simple? If > Person A and B are tied for the lead in something, does Person A have the > most? No, Person B has just as much. And vice versa. There is no person > with the most, so nobody gets it. The End?
I think the argument is that because the rule uses "the", it implies that exactly one such person exists, and thus creates a legal fiction that one such person exists: we merely have to figure out who. I don't think the argument holds up, but it's an interesting direction to go in. -- ais523
