On 09/08/2014 01:10, Joshua Wiley wrote:
On Sat, Aug 9, 2014 at 9:56 AM, Patrick Burns
wrote:
On 07/08/2014 07:21, Joshua Wiley wrote:
Hi Ryan,
It does work, but the *apply family of functions always pass to the first
argument, so you can specify e2 = , but not e1 =. For example:
sapply
On 07/08/2014 07:21, Joshua Wiley wrote:
Hi Ryan,
It does work, but the *apply family of functions always pass to the first
argument, so you can specify e2 = , but not e1 =. For example:
sapply(1:3, `>`, e2 = 2)
[1] FALSE FALSE TRUE
That is not true:
gt <- function(x, y) x > y
> sapply(
On Sat, Aug 9, 2014 at 9:56 AM, Patrick Burns
wrote:
> On 07/08/2014 07:21, Joshua Wiley wrote:
>
>> Hi Ryan,
>>
>> It does work, but the *apply family of functions always pass to the first
>> argument, so you can specify e2 = , but not e1 =. For example:
>>
>> sapply(1:3, `>`, e2 = 2)
>>>
>> [
Josh,
Thank you for your detailed answer.
Best,
Ryan
On 7 Aug 2014, at 16:21, Joshua Wiley wrote:
> Hi Ryan,
>
> It does work, but the *apply family of functions always pass to the first
> argument, so you can specify e2 = , but not e1 =. For example:
>
>> sapply(1:3, `>`, e2 = 2)
> [1] FALSE
Hi Ryan,
It does work, but the *apply family of functions always pass to the first
argument, so you can specify e2 = , but not e1 =. For example:
> sapply(1:3, `>`, e2 = 2)
[1] FALSE FALSE TRUE
>From ?sapply
'lapply' returns a list of the same length as 'X', each element of
which is
Hi,
I'm wondering why calling ">" with named arguments doesn't work as expected:
> args(">")
function (e1, e2)
NULL
> sapply(c(1,2,3), `>`, e2=0)
[1] TRUE TRUE TRUE
> sapply(c(1,2,3), `>`, e1=0)
[1] TRUE TRUE TRUE
Shouldn't the latter be FALSE?
Thanks for any help,
Ryan
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